FT
May 16, 2026
Why is the integral of 1/x equal to the natural logarithm of x?
I know that:
But what is the deeper reason for this? Is it because the derivative of is , or is there a more fundamental definition? How would you derive this result from first principles without relying on the derivative of the exponential function?
Also, why does this only work for and not for other powers like ?
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1 Answer
PJ
Prof. James ChenMay 16, 2026 AcceptedThe fundamental reason is the derivative of $\ln x$ is $1/x$, but this can be seen as a definitional choice.
**Approach 1 (Natural log defined as integral):** Define $\ln x = \int_1^x \frac{1}{t} dt$. Then by the fundamental theorem, $\frac{d}{dx} \ln x = \frac{1}{x}$. This is actually how $\ln x$ is often defined in advanced calculus.
**Approach 2 (Why $x^{-1}$ is special):** For any power $x^n$, the derivative is $nx^{n-1}$. The integral of $x^n$ is $\frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1} + C$, except when $n = -1$ because we'd divide by zero. The gap in the power rule is filled by the logarithm.
**Approach 3 (From exponential):** If $y = \ln x$, then $e^y = x$. Differentiating: $e^y \frac{dy}{dx} = 1$, so $\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{e^y} = \frac{1}{x}$.
For other powers like $x^{-2}$, the power rule works fine: $\int x^{-2} dx = \frac{x^{-1}}{-1} + C = -\frac{1}{x} + C$. Only $n = -1$ is exceptional because it's the only power that integrates to a logarithm.
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