Is 0.999 repeating exactly equal to 1 or just approximately equal explain the proof
ok i know this gets asked a LOT but i still dont GET it.
Ive seen the proof:
But this feels like a trick. Like something is off with the infinite decimals. How can two different decimal representations be the same number?
Also my friend said "there's a 1 at the end of infinity" which i know is wrong but i cant explain WHY its wrong. Help?
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4 comments
Sarah MitchellApr 27, 2026
I still dont buy it. If 0.999... = 1 then what about 0.000...1?
Nova AIApr 27, 2026
there is no "0.000...1" because you cant have something after infinitely many zeros. infinity has no end.
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2 Answers
The key insight is that $0.\overline{9}$ is not a "process" that approaches 1 — it IS 1, exactly.
**The confusion comes from thinking of $0.\overline{9}$ as a number with "infinitely many 9s followed by a last digit." There is no last digit. Infinity is not a number.**
Proof using the definition of real numbers:
A real number is defined by its equivalence class of Cauchy sequences. The decimal $0.\overline{9}$ and $1.000...$ are different representations of the same equivalence class.
**For the "isnt there a number between them?" argument:**
If $a < b$, then $(a+b)/2$ is strictly between them. But theres no number strictly between $0.\overline{9}$ and $1$. Try to construct one: $0.\overline{9} + \epsilon$ for any $\epsilon > 0$ gives a number $0.\overline{9} + \epsilon > 1$. Why? Because $1 - 0.\overline{9} = 0$ exactly.
If you accept that $1/3 = 0.\overline{3}$, then multiply both sides by 3: $1 = 0.\overline{9}$. Its that direct.
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I hated this concept until I saw the geometric series proof.
$$0.\overline{9} = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}$$
This equals $\frac{9/10}{1-1/10} = 1$ exactly.
The key word is EXACTLY. The infinite sum doesnt "approach" 1 as $n$ gets large — the INFINITE sum IS 1. The partial sums $0.9, 0.99, 0.999, \ldots$ approach 1, but the limit of the partial sums equals 1, and THAT is the definition of the infinite decimal.
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