Why is the integral of 1/x equal to ln absolute x?
I know that:
But when I first learned it, they wrote . Then later they added the absolute value. Why?
If , then so it doesnt matter. But if can be negative, isnt even defined (in the reals).
But consider the definite integral:
Using gives , which is correct!
But if we used , wed get which is undefined.
So the question is: why does ? The derivative of only works for , so how do we handle the negative case?
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